There are three arguments I particularly hate. They're overused, misused, and frankly - achieve nothing. It seems I see them all over the internet, and in the real world (which I recommend visiting every once in a while...) If you're anything like me, then not only am I incredibly attracted to you, but I'd also predict that you cringe when you hear the following arguments being used... Hopefully by shedding some light on them, we'll use them a little less, hm?
I was arguing about Global Warming with a friend of mine, who suffixed his argument with:
"...if you think about it." In an instant I was cornered. No amount of facts, statistics, studies, references, could refute his argument - because his argument was precisely that, as long as I thought about it, I would agree with him. Any attempt at disagreeing simply meant I had not thought about it. How do you defeat an argument like that? My best attempt was suffixing
my argument with
"...if you just close your eyes and believe with all your heart."
I was reminded of a recent argument I heard between two other people. Eventually one of them used an example of Hitler, and received the immediate thwarting of
'Aaaah, Godwin's law!'. But, was the argument really thwarted? I mean, since the xkcd comic brought Godwin's Law to mainstream knowledge (
http://xkcd.com/261/ ), I've been hearing countless arguments refuted with it. Unfortunately, xkcd is a misinterpretation of the law. The law does not make any claim to the validity of the use of Hitler and Nazis as an example - only that it eventually will happen. In other words, a good use of the example is no less good because it was used. And there are reasons why it is a good example - it's universally understandable, it is a real-world example of extremism, and so much more. All one really stands to gain from pointing out Godwin's law is, in the off-chance the other party doesn't know of the law, the temporary feeling of knowledgeable superiority.
Finally there's the burden of proof argument. Now this is a big one. It deals with one person making an unsubstantiated claim to another who may have more sources, scientific facts, and the usual standards that help one's argument. Often, I'll hear the second party - the well informed party - refute the grandiose arguments of the first party with either: "Prove it," or otherwise informing them the burden of proof lies with them. But really, does it? Consider who you are arguing with here. It may be an argument founded on ignorance, and how likely do you think someone is going to research their own ignorance? There's a reason why they got to where they are. But besides that point, there was a time when you too were ignorant of something. And your hand was held as you were lead through the research papers, the statistics, and that which we call "facts." Maybe it hasn't been a while. Maybe you've learned to do your research - but there was a time. Now of course, even if you show someone ignorant claims countering their argument, they may be unphased (it all comes down to their ignorance quotient) - but at least you took a better approach than leaving the burden to them. The burden is in fact on the one who is "better informed." Otherwise, how would any of us know anything? How would anyone of us get anywhere? Einstein became
Einstein because he published 3 groundbreaking papers in which he took the burden upon himself to inform. Put simply: it should not be on the one trying to persuade - afterall, everyone tries to persuade. It should be on the one who has the facts, has the knowledge.
I mean, think about it. Imagine the kind of world we'd be living in if no one took it upon their shoulders to explain the wrong doings of Hitler. If you think it'd be a better world... prove it.
Comments
richard
2008-12-11 22:03:11
alishahnovin
2008-12-11 22:18:03
Not quite. From Wikipedia:
"The rule does not make any statement about whether any particular reference or comparison to Hitler or the Nazis might be appropriate, but only asserts that one arising is increasingly probable. It is precisely because such a comparison or reference may sometimes be appropriate, Godwin has argued that overuse of Nazi and Hitler comparisons should be avoided, because it robs the valid comparisons of their impact."
There is Dodd's Corollary, which states: "When debating a particular subject, if a comparison or implied connection is drawn between the opponent's argument and Hitler and the Nazi Party, the maker of that statement is automatically discredited and the debate is automatically lost by the person or group who referenced the connection to Hitler or the Nazis."
But I for one disagree with Dodd's Corollary. Relating something to Hitler and Nazi has become, in a sense an over-used expression to the point where the meaning of the expression and the expression have become one and the same. In other words, when people say "He is like Hitler" they mean to say "He is like Hitler, who was an evil man." - The word/name/person Hitler has become synonymous with evil. But that doesn't detract from meaning, or logical soundness. It may affect the originality, or profoundness of one's argument, as it becomes an over-simplification, but those are matters of style and not of validity.
Alamir
2008-12-11 23:17:30
To show how the argument is overused in debates here's a sort of ironical story, I once had to vote for a "University Debate Team" representative. To win our votes the candidates, a girl and a Spanish guy had to debate why they'd be a good representative. The Spanish guy said something along the lines of "I will fight to make sure your demands get heard by the administration no matter what!" The girl (who ironically had a background as a debate champion) then referred to the Spanish guy as a "Mussolini" for his statement. I thought the debate was so weak on her part that although I was going to vote for her up until then, that statement alone made me switch votes.
My example is just to show how ingrained the reference to WWII tyrants have become in debates. From federal-presidents to university-presidents. It needs to stop because those who listen to a lot of debates cringe when it's brought up. Even if it's a symbol of evil, comparing it to everything that is "not liked" makes the true evilness of tyrants look like blasé topics. So I think a Godwin Law to ensure that we bring back the example of Hitler to mean exactly what it's supposed to mean is definitely required and in order.
alishahnovin
2008-12-12 12:29:26
But you're pointing to cases in which the reference is pretty weak. If someone uses the "Hitler" card where it's a complete stretch and doesn't fully apply, that is a reflection on the person poor argument abilities.
Consider the statement: "____________ is to Politics, what Hamburgler is to McDonalds"
The only reason that would look more intriguing than if it said Hitler is only because that's a reference that is very seldom used. But one really has to pick at it to figure it out... and only because Hamburgler has the immediately identifiable trait of theft, it's possible to discern from meaning. With Hitler, however, the meaning is immediately apparent, though stylistically poor.
The important part though is that if _________ was a known "thief," the reference to Hamburgler makes more sense than Hitler would. And it's only for that reason that Hitler should not be used.
Alamir
2008-12-12 15:19:58